Welcome to Writers Talkback. If you are a new user, your account will have to be approved manually to prevent spam. Please bear with us in the meantime
I was reading an article by Gove, in which he wrote "If they wish to include Steinbeck...no one would be more delighted than me, because I want children to read more widely and range more freely intellectually in every subject."
That immediately struck me as wrong - shouldn't it be "no one would be more delighted than I (would), because I want...." ?
And if I'm wrong and Gove (and the editor of the Telegraph) are right, why is that? Does anyone know?
Comments
To be grammatically correct and still use 'me' he would have to say something like: It would delight me more than anybody else.
What always grates on my ear is "Dave and me went . ." or "They gave it to Dave and I ..." yet I hear those mistakes all the time.
Here's the link for anyone who is bored: http://www.telegraph.co.uk/education/10857133/Michael-Gove-Kill-a-Mockingbird-Id-never-dream-of-it.html.
And thank you all for your input - such a wealth of expertise in one place!